Prove the "homogeneous Nullstellensatz," which says that if \mathfrak a\subseteq S is a homogeneous ideal, and if f\in S is a homogeneous polynomial with \deg f>0, such that f(P)=0 for all P\in Z(\mathfrak a) in \mathbb P^n, then f^q\in\mathfrak a for some q>0. [Hint: Interpret the problem in terms of the affine (n+1)-space whose affine coordinate ring is S, and use the usual Nullstellensatz, (1.3A).]
The first case of this problem (a trivial case) is when Z(\mathfrak a)=\emptyset in \mathbb P^n and the condition that f vanishes on Z(\mathfrak a) is vacuous. In this case, in \mathbb A^{n+1} either Z(\mathfrak a)=\emptyset or Z(\mathfrak a)=\{(0,\dots,0)\}. In the first case f vanishes on Z(\mathfrak a) vacuously and thus f^q\in\mathfrak a for some q. In the second case, since f is homogeneous with \deg f>0 we have f(0,\dots,0)=0, hence the same holds and we are done.
The nontrivial case occurs when Z(\mathfrak a)\neq\emptyset in \mathbb P^n. Interpreting this in \mathbb A^{n+1}, if \mathfrak a is homogeneous then we can interpret Z(\mathfrak a) as an affine cone: a union of the lines through the origin representing points through the origin. To prove this, let P=(a_0,\dots,a_n)\in Z(\mathfrak a) be a point. The ideal \mathfrak a has generators that are homogeneous, and thus it suffices to show that any homogeneous polynomial vanishing at P vanishes on such a line. Indeed, since it is homogeneous it vanishes on any multiple \lambda P, and thus on the entire line. Hence each line is contained in Z(\mathfrak a). The other inclusion is trivial.
Now, since f vanishes on Z(\mathfrak a) and f is homogeneous, it also vanishes on any affine lines through the origin and thus on the cone Z(\mathfrak a)\subseteq\mathbb A^{n+1}. By the ordinary Nullstellensatz, f^q\in\mathfrak a for some q>0.
For Z(\mathfrak{a})\neq \emptyset and \deg(f)>0 we have that Z(f) is a proper subset of \PP^n and thus Z(\mathfrak{a}) is a proper subset of \PP^n:
ReplyDeleteWe are taking Z(T) where T is the set of homogeneous elements of \mathfrak{a}, and when we pass to \A^{n+1} we a priori just have pre-images of Z(T) in \A^{n+1}, then since \mathfrak{a} = \bigoplus_d (\mathfrak{a} \cap S_d) is homogeneous, \mathfrak{a} is the minimal ideal generated by its homogeneous elements, so Z(\mathfrak{a}) = Z(T) in \A^{n+1}.
In the above comment, the \PP should be \mathbb{P} and \A should be \mathbb{A}.
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